AIBE 20 SET A Question Paper PDF (OUT) with Solutions - Download Here

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AIBE 20 SET A 2025 Exam Analysis

The AIBE exam pattern may vary slightly every year. However, the general structure of SET A remains consistent:

AIBE 20 SET A Difficulty Level Analysis

The exam was moderate in difficulty with a strong emphasis on the new criminal law codes (BNS, BNSS, BSA), which together formed the largest portion of the paper. Many questions were direct, factual, and number-based, especially those dealing with compensation limits, timelines, penalties, and notice periods. Constitutional Law, Consumer Law, and Taxation were comparatively easier and scoring, relying mostly on straightforward Articles, definitions, and standard numerical limits. Procedural subjects like CPC and Arbitration contained trickier questions requiring careful reading of the Bare Acts.

AIBE 20 SET A Subject-Wise Distribution

AIBE 20 SET A Section-wise Questions with Detailed Solutions

Q1. If a bailif exwates an eviction hased on a civil court onder later declared void for lack of jurisdictiont. what protextion does Section 78, of the Indian Penal Code provide?

(A) The hailif is punistuable as the order was invalid from the beginning

(B) The bailiff can be punished only with a reduced penalry

(C) The hailiff is exempt if he acted in good faith under the order

(D) The bailiff is required to compensate the evicted person

1. Correct option: (C)
Section 78 IPC protects a person executing a court order—even if later found void—as long as he acts in good faith, believing the court had jurisdiction. The bailiff is not criminally liable for such execution. The law shields subordinates carrying out judicial orders.

Q2.Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, what is the maximum number of consecutive days an effender may be kept in solitary confinement at a time ?

(A) Seven

(B) Ten

(C) Fourteen

2. Correct option: (A) Seven
Under BNS 2023, solitary confinement cannot exceed 7 days at a time. It is awarded only in limited circumstances and with strict safeguards. Longer continuous periods are prohibited to avoid physical and mental harm.

Q3.According to the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, what is the fixed amount of comperwation payable in the event of death caused by a motor vehicle accident under no-fault liability?

(A) Twenty-five thousand rupees

(B) Fily thousand rupees

(C) One lakh rupees

(D) Seventy-five thousand rupees

3. Correct option: (C) One lakh rupees
Section 140 of the Motor Vehicles Act fixes ₹1,00,000 as compensation for death on a no-fault basis. The claimant need not prove negligence. It ensures immediate relief to victims’ families.

Q4.Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion ( A ) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : An employee can be deemed to be in continuous service for ene year obly if he has worked for 365 days in the preceding twelve months, without any internaption.

Reason (R) : Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, continuous service may also inclide periods of interruption due to sickness, accident, leave, lay-off, strike, or lock-out not cansed by the employee's finult.

In the context of the above assertion and reason under the Payment of Oratuity Act, 1972, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but ( R ) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

4. Correct option: (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
A person is not required to work 365 actual days; continuous service includes interruptions due to sickness, leave, strike, etc. The reason correctly states the statutory rule, proving the assertion false.

Q5. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement 1 : Under the Indian Penal Code, if a person harbours an offender who has excaped custody for an offence punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years, he shall be punished with inprisonment up

Statement 2 : The law provides an exception for harbouring or concealing by the husband or wife of the to 7 years.

In the context of the above statements under the Indian Penal Code, which one of the following is offender. correct?

(A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are false

(B) Only Statement I is true

(C) Only Statement 2 is true

(D) Both the Statements are true

5. Correct option: (C) Only Statement 2 is true
Harbouring an offender with punishment up to 3 years attracts up to 3 years, not 7 years—so Statement 1 is false. The spousal exception exists under IPC, so Statement 2 is correct.

Q6.If a person attempts an offence punishable with a maximum of 10 years imprisonment, what is the maximum yoars of imprisonment that can be imposed under Section 62 of the Blaratiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 ?

(A) Five yours

(B) Seven years

(C) Ten years

(D) Three years

6. Correct option: (B) Seven years
For an attempt, punishment may extend to one-half of the longest term of the offence attempted. If the offence carries 10 years, the attempt can attract up to 5 years, but BNS caps certain attempts at 7 years—making (B) correct as per BNS text.

Q7. A juvenile aged 14 years is brought before the court for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment for life. Under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedurs, 1973, will the case primurily fill?

(A) Section 27

(B) Section 125

(C) Section 302

7. Correct option: (A) Section 27
Section 27 CrPC provides that offences by children under 16 (now treated for juveniles) not punishable with life or death shall be tried by special courts. Hence, the case falls under Section 27.

Q8. Under Section 290(1) of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, within how many days from the date of framing of charge can an accused file an application for plea bargaining ?

(A) 15

(B) 30

(C) 45

(D) 60

8. Correct option: (B) 30
Section 290(1) BNSS allows an accused to file for plea bargaining within 30 days from the framing of charge. It ensures timely disposal while preventing misuse.

Q9. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, if a person is ordered to pay a fine of ₹ 4,000 but fails to do so, what is the maximum simple imprisonment the court may impose on the defaulter?

(A). One year

(B) Two months

(C) Four months

(D) Six months

9. Correct option: (B) Two months
For a fine between ₹2,000 and ₹5,000, the maximum default imprisonment is two months. The court imposes simple imprisonment proportional to the fine amount.

Q10.According to Section 18 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha'Sanhita, 2023, what is the minimam period of practice as an advocate, required to be convidered eligible for appointment as a Public Prosecutor or Additional Pubtle Prosecutor?

(A) 3 years

(C) 7 years

(B) 5 years

(D) 10 years

10. Correct option: (C) 7 years
A minimum of 7 years’ practice as an advocate is required. This ensures adequate courtroom experience for prosecutorial roles.